Christ was/is a priest
There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here. They are honored as equals. See Rev20: 6
"...but they will be priests of God
and
of Christ and will reign with him for a thousand years." What
does a priest do? Serve -'latreuo', i.e. service only allowable to God.
OR by simply reading the passage rather then PARTICULAR words in it, it can mean simply that authority was given to Christ over the earth (complete authority) for a time. Which would only be fair since he did suffer quite a bit of pain and humiliation while on earth being sacrificed and maybe would like a period of time all to himself to even a few scores per sa. Perfectly understandable. Normally Vengeance is mine sayth the Lord Which means he can do with it what ever he wants. He can give it to his son for a while if he wants to and we have no authority to dispute it.
God the Father gives Christ complete authority (over the earth/our universe, small as it may be) for certain purposes and when he is finished Christ hands it back.
About that time would be a good time for some more Books to be either revealed or written to continue the saga. Because that would cover Revelations.
Those words are highlighted in order to show what is KEY in the passage. Note again the context: ....priests OF Christ. This is what you call a "partitive genitive" which denotes relation to the subject. The people are priests for Christ, they serve Christ. That is what is to be emphasized.
There are no "level of degrees" in worship given to the Father and Son here.
Different meanings can translate simply by highlighting different words/phrases in most scriptures. Depending on what ones OBJECTIVE is.
You didn't address the context. It is the fact that, within the context, Christ is distinguished WITH THE FATHER from EVERY CREATURE. Also note the PRESENCE of the articles in the GREEK. This denotes THE honor etc...as I demonstrated from Jn5:18 etc...in my previous post.
when he hands over the kingdom to God the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power.(ON EARTH).. vs28.... When He has done this, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECTto Him who put everything under him
To Him who put everything under him
SO what exactly IS everything?
Everything pertinent to US?
Everything pertinent to God?
We dont know about everything that is with in our reach much less everything that goes beyond that.
By only highlighting, THEN the Son WILL BE made SUBJECT and focusing on that is to suggest there was no prior arrangement. As though it was that way throughout all infinity right up until THAT VERSE.
The time of occurence is beside the point. It is the structure of the context. Once again note the "made subject"...note the fact that in order for Christ to be "subjected" to the Father, he would have to have been equal at one time. See Heb5:8. All of creation is obedient to Father God. Why then did Jesus, whom according to you is a creature, have to "learn" obediencs during His stint in the incarnated state if he already "knew" as Michael (or whoever) prior?
1 John 5:9-11
9 Do we not accept human testimony? The testimony of God is much greater: it is the testimony God has given on his own Son's behalf. 10 Whoever believes in the Son of God possesses that testimony within his heart. Whoever does not believe God has made God a liar by refusing to believe in the testimony he has given on his own Son's behalf. 11 The testimony is this: God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. [NAB]
The Son is known only by revelation from God, there has as yet been no witness to the Son by the Son himself
The scriptures equally state that no one can know the Father nor come to Him except by Christ.
From what I've gathered YHWH isn't used anywhere in the New Testament. If they aren't using the "Word", why wouldn't they say His Name is "the Word of God"? Those that understand what the "Word of God" is would understand what is being referred.
You are correct. YHWH is not used in the NT. However, if you look at the REFERENCE to the verse cited in Hebrews, you will note that the Greek word 'kyrios' is a representation (here, not in every NT occurance) of YHWH in this verse. So when Paul says "in the beginning O Lord" he is quotign directly from the Psalm that stated "in the beginning O YHWH".....
Do you believe the "Word of God" is the Scriptures? Why didn't they say His Name is "the Scriptures"? And on that subject, do you really believe that 'all things came into existence" through the Bible? All things came into existence "whether the things in heaven or the things on earth" for and through the Bible?
I believe that it is another name for Christ, such as "Wonderful" etc... The scriptures testify of christ, not the other way around. It is Christ you must come to "you search the scriptures in vain thinking that by THEM you possess eternal life. Yet you refuse to come to ME."....
God bless you in the highest, ><>
Jeremiah Lee
Edited by - Jeremiah Lee on 9 August 2002 9:46:21